39. Improper Integrals
1
Dated: 30-10-2024
Integrals over Infinite interval
2
The improper integral
1 is of the form
or
What Does it Mean?
- If the
limit
3 exists then we say theimproper integral
converges to a finite value. - If the
limit
3 does not exist then we say theimproper integral
diverges and no finite value can be assigned.
Example
Evaluate \(\(\int_{1}^{+\infty}\frac{1}{x^{2}}dx\)\)
Solution
Example
Evaluate
Solution
If \(f(x)\) is not bound on interval
2 then \(f(x)\) is not integratable
over \([a, b]\).
We can get around this problem
-
If \(f(x)\) is
continuous
4 over theinterval
2 \([a, b)\) and does not have alimit
3 from the left then we can define animproper integral
in following way \(\(\int_a^b f(x) dx = \lim_{l \to b^-} \int_a^l f(x) dx\)\) -
If \(f(x)\) is
continuous
4 over theinterval
2 \((a, b]\) and does not have alimit
3 from the right then we can define animproper integral
in following way \(\(\int_a^b f(x) dx = \lim_{l \to a^+} \int_l^b f(x) dx\)\)
If
- \(f(x)\) is
continuous
4 over theinterval
2 \([a, b]\) except for the point \(c\) - \(a < c < b\)
- \(f(x)\) goes
infinite
as \(x^+ \to c\) and \(x^- \to c\) - both
improper integrals
, which are \(\int_a^c f(x) dx\) and \(\int_c^b f(x) dx\), converge
then
Example
Evaluate
Solution
The integrand
1 approaches to \(+ \infty\) as \(x \to 2\). Therefore,
References
Read more about notations and symbols.